June 27, 2012 at 8:08 am
Hello,
Just a quick question on trigger permissions in SQL Server 2005.
I have a table in the DBO schema with a trigger on it (also in the DBO schema). When the table is updated the trigger executes a stored procedure in another schema. Should this trigger be failing as it does not have permissions to execute stored procedures in the other schema?
Thank you,
Andrew
June 27, 2012 at 12:18 pm
If the proc in the other schema is explicitly owned and it is not owned by the same owner as the dbo schema then the ownership chain is broken.
Similarly, if the proc in the other schema is not explicitly owned and the other schema is not owned by the same owner as the dbo schema then the ownership chain is also broken.
When an ownership chain is broken an explicit permission is required on the next accessed object. Ownership chaining can resume after that.
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