December 29, 2005 at 12:44 pm
We have a SQL server in the eastern time zone, but our customers work on it across all timezones.
#1 It appears that getdate() is always based on the server's time and not adjusted for which timezone the client is in. Is this correct?
#2 Is there a way to have SQL adjust the time from the server to the correct timezone? Obviously I can select and subtract or add an hour times a stored constant (I am wondering if there is a simpler automatic way). Is there a way to determine which timezone the client is in?
#3 The time stored in the database is that based on the timezone or UTC?
Someone has just pointed out GETUTCDATE() which is apparently a start, I am still curious if others have dealt with cross timezone functions.
Thanks in advacne, Brian
December 29, 2005 at 2:02 pm
#1 Yes, GETDATE() returns time based on the server. The server is unaware of any timezone information of the client.
#2 No, not within out passing in something via a stored procedure parameter or the like and you performing a conversion process.
#3 The time stored in a column of datetime doesn't presuppose a particular timezone. It just knows Dec 15, 2005 12:43 PM as just that, Dec 15, 2005 12:43 PM.
K. Brian Kelley
@kbriankelley
December 30, 2005 at 5:10 am
Thanks, Brian. I was afraid of that.
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