April 23, 2007 at 11:01 am
Is this possible?
Source db (db1) has a subset of tables that target db (db2) has.
In other words, db1 has tables x and db2 has tables x+y.
Will transactional replication work to keep tables x in sync if db1 is the source?
Do the two dbs have to have identical schemas?
Thanks!
April 24, 2007 at 6:00 am
I am happy to tell you that the schemas do not have to be the same. In fact, you can replicate from several databases into a single database and also have local tables in the database. It all works fine with transactional replication.
To add to this, the table you are replicating into does not have to have the same name, owner, or all of the same columns as the original table.
I would, however, recommend you keep replication as simple as possible. Take the defaults in most cases and do not try to create foreign key constraints to tables that are not replicated. It can make reinitialization complicated.
Although you are running SQL 2000, I would also recommend you get a copy of the SQL 2005 Management studio. The replication monitor for SQL 2005 works fine with SQL 2000 transactional replication and gives you a greater degree of control over replication features through a user interface. In SQL 2000 you had to do a lot of scripting with stored procedures to do things like change destination table names and object owners. You can do it all through the SQL 2005 replication UI.
April 24, 2007 at 11:23 am
Thanks so much for your response! Very helpful. I do have 2005 Management studio and will use it.
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