June 10, 2005 at 6:52 am
Hai all,
Is there anyway to execute a job by a user without having sysadmin privillege, if the job is owned by another user.
subban
June 10, 2005 at 7:58 am
If you create a stored-procedure that is owned by the same owner as the job and GRANT EXEC to the sp THEN the non-owner should be able to run the job.
You will need to research sp_start_job for more info.
Of course this is going on the assumption that chain of ownership applies to jobs as well....
Good Hunting!
AJ Ahrens
webmaster@kritter.net
June 10, 2005 at 9:07 am
or, you can have a table to collect user's "run" request, then set up a job running to start other jobs that user has requested by lookup request status.
June 10, 2005 at 9:57 am
...or add the user to TargetServersRole in MSDB and grant the role EXECUTE permission to sp_start_job.
Greg
Greg
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