April 29, 2010 at 10:44 am
If you deny a user select permission on a table and grant him permission on a view that uses that table. Will he or she be able to use the view?
Thanks
April 29, 2010 at 4:58 pm
Yes
April 30, 2010 at 6:09 am
Depends on ownership chaining. Does the same schema own both the view and the table?
April 30, 2010 at 8:01 am
Brandie Tarvin (4/30/2010)
Depends on ownership chaining. Does the same schema own both the view and the table?
Yes
April 30, 2010 at 8:21 am
Then the answer is "Yes, he should be able to see the view" with a caveat. He MUST be granted SELECT permissions on the View itself. Otherwise, it will fail.
I just tested it to be sure.
Viewing 5 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
You must be logged in to reply to this topic. Login to reply