May 23, 2006 at 2:48 pm
I have a view (view1) in database1 that does nothing but select from table1 in database2. I have verified the db owners are the same and public has select to view1 and table1. My user (user1) has access to database1 but not database2. I thought if the db owners are the same then permission would flow through. Please correct me if I'm wrong.
thanks.
May 23, 2006 at 3:41 pm
May 23, 2006 at 3:46 pm
I am not able to select from view1. I get a User does not exist in the database2 error.
May 23, 2006 at 3:59 pm
User1 needs to exist as a valid user in your second database. Moreover, User1 must have select permissions on whichever tables view1 touches.
May 23, 2006 at 4:53 pm
johng,
Have you enabled cross-database ownership chaining for both databases? You'll need this.
A user doesn't need SELECT permission for a table that is used by a view. That's why using views to obscure columns works.
Greg
Greg
May 23, 2006 at 8:32 pm
the funny thing is if I create a store procedure in database1 to select table2 from database2 it works, but using a view doesnt. I guess i need to enable cross database ownership, but i would rather not.
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