March 5, 2004 at 3:11 pm
Hi, I have a question about objects security:
Isn't supposed to when I create a object to access other data (a view), if dbo creates the view, the inner select is performed with object owner permission (in this case dbo)?
The exact situation I have is: a view (in DB "A") to a table in other DB (DB "B") created by dbo on both DBs.
A user in DB "A" with explicit permission to the view in DB "A" (but without permission to direct SELECT in DB "B", no login there).
If I perform the view trough this user & inside DB "A" (select * from dbo.view) this error raises:
"Server user 'User_of_db_A' is not a valid user in database 'db_B'"
¿Why? I don't want to grant explicit dbB.select permission.
Help me :-S
March 5, 2004 at 3:28 pm
Here is link that explains cross-database ownership chaining and how to configure it.
http://support.microsoft.com/default.aspx?scid=kb;EN-US;810474
Jack Corbett
Consultant - Straight Path Solutions
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March 5, 2004 at 3:47 pm
I thought it was easier.
I think I would grant public role in DB "B", I prefer keep it simple.
Thanks
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