December 15, 2004 at 6:51 pm
I have a table tbl1 that has the following fields:
id (pk)
fname
lname
ref#
I also have a second table - tbl2 that has following fields:
id (pk)
fname
lname
I want a simple SP that will create records in tbl2 based on the records selected in tbl1 (say, ref#='123').
How would I do that?
December 16, 2004 at 12:33 am
Have a look at INSERT INTO...SELECT in BOL. If the PK has the IDENTITY property defined on the column, you might need to use SET IDENTITY_INSERT ON, which is also explained in BOL.
--
Frank Kalis
Microsoft SQL Server MVP
Webmaster: http://www.insidesql.org/blogs
My blog: http://www.insidesql.org/blogs/frankkalis/[/url]
December 16, 2004 at 7:51 am
I have
INSERT tbl2
SELECT id,fname,lname from tbl1
WHERE ref# = '123'
This works fine but what if I just wanted to insert fname and leave lname out (which would insert NULLS in that column).
December 16, 2004 at 7:57 am
INSERT INTO tbl2 (fname) SELECT fname FROM tbl1 WHERE ref#='123'
Btw, the # sign isn't really good to be used as a column name. I have seen several threads here, where this caused more or less severe problems.
--
Frank Kalis
Microsoft SQL Server MVP
Webmaster: http://www.insidesql.org/blogs
My blog: http://www.insidesql.org/blogs/frankkalis/[/url]
December 16, 2004 at 8:06 am
I tried that but it didn't like it. I don't have the error with me right now but I'll post the error I got.
December 16, 2004 at 8:21 am
If your column don't allow for NULLs, you have to change them to allow for NULLs, or insert a dummy value. But what are you really after???
--
Frank Kalis
Microsoft SQL Server MVP
Webmaster: http://www.insidesql.org/blogs
My blog: http://www.insidesql.org/blogs/frankkalis/[/url]
December 16, 2004 at 8:29 am
Nothing. I was just trying to understand "nuances" of sql server. I have tried this on DB/2 and have been successful in past. I guess it must be the syntax. (Or I must be doing something really stupid - which won't surprise me)
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